Whats the difference between Barkley taking less with the Rockets before getting a big contract and Gary Trent/Joe Smith taking less before getting a big contract?
Maybe someone more familiar with the CBA can explain the legal distinction here because I’m struggling to see where the line is.
Gary Trent Jr. being investigated for potential cap circumvention (2 1-year minimums to get a Early birds right contract) immediately reminded me of the Joe Smith case (3 1-year contracts to get a birds right contract)
But then I think about other examples that seem functionally similar. Charles Barkley famously took a \(1 million contract with Houston to help the team acquire Scottie Pippen. The next year, he signed for \)9 million. James Harden declined his $47.3 million player option and was very public about taking less in Philadelphia with the expectation that it would position him for a larger long-term contract the following summer (“Daryl Morey is a Liar!”)
Neither of those situations resulted in an investigation. So what’s the legal difference? Is it literally just proof of a prior agreement? Because from the outside, they all looked like they just sacrificed their current “market value” salary for future compensation. I’m trying to understand what makes one perfectly legal and another a CBA violation.